Poker Hand Question

[sooner333]

All right, so I'm playing at my home game .50/1 blinds. I bought in about 40, up to 100 and the other chipleader has 2.50 less than I do.

I get dealt A-A, he bets 10 dollars into me, I re-raise 10 dollars, and he calls. he then offers to cap the betting. I decline.

The flop is something along the lines of 3s-Qh-9h, I don't have a heart. He says "well, since you didn't cap it, I'll bet 15", I re-raise all-in, and he flips his pocket queens.

Now, I know I should have played, and would have at least had to call the 15 dollar bet. Should I have taken the cap...I mean, I had the lead, and actually had him dominated the whole time. It was rough to lose the 100 bucks, but what should I have done differently, if anything?

[RPI-Fan]

I think you know the answer to this...

Of course you played it fine, except perhaps after the flop. But preflop there is absolutely no reason to take that cap.

[sooner333]

I mean, there was really no way to get out of it after the flop though. i guess I didn't need to go all-in (because that was really like taking a cap, except that I could lose all of my money). But, I probably had to call the 15. Then I would have called whatever else, and it would have turned into me draining maybe less money a little slower...but probably not all that much less (considering he had to have had me on Aces or Kings).