Baseball Scoring Question

[Dutch]

I'm sure this is Baseball Scoring 101 but I can't remember how this is scored.

*****

Batter gets a double.
Next batter gets a hit and moves the runner to 3rd.
Runner on 1st steals 2nd.

So the situation is baserunners at 2nd and 3rd.

The next batter flies to the outfield, but the OF misses and is credited with an error.

*****

The two baserunners score. Are they earned runs against the pitcher who let them on base or are they unearned runs?

Would there be any difference if there were 2 outs vs no outs in the scoring?

[RPI-Fan]

I'm sure this is Baseball Scoring 101 but I can't remember how this is scored.

*****

Batter gets a double.
Next batter gets a hit and moves the runner to 3rd.
Runner on 1st steals 2nd.

So the situation is baserunners at 2nd and 3rd.

The next batter flies to the outfield, but the OF misses and is credited with an error.

*****

The two baserunners score. Are they earned runs against the pitcher who let them on base or are they unearned runs?

Would there be any difference if there were 2 outs vs no outs in the scoring?

I've been wondering this for a while too, thanks for asking.

[ScottVib]

Depends on the number of outs.

With 2 outs, both runs are unearned.

With 1 out, most likely only one run is unearned. The batter, by the way, is credited with a Sacrifice Fly (no time at bat) and 1 RBI (the second run scores only by virtue of the error).

That said, there exists the possibility for both runs to be earned (say the next batter hits a home run). Any future run scored by the batter (who hit the fly ball) would be unearned, as would any run scored after there were two outs in the inning.

[RPI-Fan]

Why is there a difference between 1 out and 0 outs? With 1 out, if the catch was made, there'd be a runner on 2nd or 3rd with 2 outs. He'd still be able to score on the next batter.

[ScottVib]

dola, BTW the rule is 10.18, you can find it (and all official scoring rules) on MLB's site here:

An earned run is a run for which the pitcher is held accountable. In determining earned runs, the inning should be reconstructed without the errors (which include catcher’s interference) and passed balls, and the benefit of the doubt should always be given to the pitcher in determining which bases would have been reached by errorless play. For the purpose of determining earned runs, an intentional base on balls, regardless of the circumstances, shall be construed in exactly the same manner as any other base on balls.

http://mlb.mlb.com/NASApp/mlb/mlb/official_info/official_rules/official_scorer_10.jsp

[Toddzilla]

Depends on the number of outs.

With 2 outs, both runs are unearned.

With 1 out, most likely only one run is unearned. The batter, by the way, is credited with a Sacrifice Fly (no time at bat) and 1 RBI (the second run scores only by virtue of the error).

That said, there exists the possibility for both runs to be earned (say the next batter hits a home run). Any future run scored by the batter (who hit the fly ball) would be unearned, as would any run scored after there were two outs in the inning.What he said. Perfection.

[ScottVib]

Why is there a difference between 1 out and 0 outs? With 1 out, if the catch was made, there'd be a runner on 2nd or 3rd with 2 outs. He'd still be able to score on the next batter.

It was a mistake on my part, I already fixed it (hadn't thought it through on the first pass).

[Dutch]

Thanks for the clarification.