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korme
10-22-2007, 01:07 AM
Ok, I have been asked this question and I'm real disappointed I don't have the answer. 2nd inning, with runners on the corners, an Indian hit into a double play with no outs but the runner from 3rd scored, however the batter (with no errors recorded) was NOT credited an RBI. Why is this?

MrBug708
10-22-2007, 01:09 AM
Double plays initiated by a batter hitting a ground ball (but not a fly ball or line drive) are recorded in the official statistic GIDP, an indicator of one form of batting ineptitude. Should a run score on a play in which a batter hits into a double play (the first-and-third or bases loaded, none-out situation), official rules of scoring deny the batter credit for an RBI, although the batter always gets credit for an RBI on a one-out groundout or a fielder's choice play in which a baserunner scores.

Chief Rum
10-22-2007, 01:09 AM
Ok, I have been asked this question and I'm real disappointed I don't have the answer. 2nd inning, with runners on the corners, an Indian hit into a double play with no outs but the runner from 3rd scored, however the batter (with no errors recorded) was NOT credited an RBI. Why is this?

I don't know the reason why, but I do know this is true. You cannot be credited with an RBI if you ground into a double play.

Whoever makes up rules like this probably set this after deciding two outs was too much to give up to get credit for an RBI.

SackAttack
10-22-2007, 01:40 AM
Shorty - simple answer is because rule 10.04(b) says:

The official scorer shall not credit a run batted in
(1) when the batter grounds into a force double play or a reverse-force double play; or
(2) when a fielder is charged with an error because the fielder muffs a throw at first base that would have completed a force double play.

Why the rule was implemented that way? Who knows. Probably because sacrificing yourself may be an intentional act to plate the run, but sacrificing yourself AND a teammate for that purpose isn't an intentional act.

ScottVib
10-22-2007, 01:46 AM
It may be because by the defense choosing to take the two outs, the early official scorers considered the run scoring on a Fielder's Choice, and not due to the batter's efforts. (Just my own best guess/justification)

MikeVic
10-22-2007, 08:56 AM
What's a reverse-force double play?

Hammer755
10-22-2007, 09:31 AM
What's a reverse-force double play?

I would assume it would be when there is a ground ball to first base, and the 1B steps on the bag then throws to second. As soon as he toughes first base, the play at second is no longer a force out.

GreenMonster
10-22-2007, 09:33 AM
What's a reverse-force double play?



A reverse-force double play is when the possibility for a force exists for both runners but during a play the trailing player is put out first, thus removing the force play on the other runner requiring the defense to now tag the runner and not the base.