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Originally Posted by Edward64
My question to you is - if it can be shown that majority of guns deaths are caused by criminal elements and mentally unstable, and NOT by law abiding citizens or their guns (e.g. stolen), will that change your mind?
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No, because, again, the issue isn't who commits crimes with guns, it's about the
widespread availability of guns with which to commit deadly & potently deadly crimes.
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If the answer is no, then we're pretty far apart and don't see how we can reconcile so won't bother.
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Agreed. If you can't even logically understand the above contention then we're operating on different planes of rhetorical existence right now.
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Originally Posted by Edward64
The study did not have a "was there a prior record?" which would have indicated non-law abiding. It also talks about gun crimes and gun deaths/homicides were not broken out (see below for an example).
This indicates 7-8% were "law abiding" enough to pass the background check. But this 7-8% does not break down into how many of those were involved in gun deaths/homicides.
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You missed the point. The point was that over 50% of the crimes were committed with guns that were either stolen directly by the criminal, or obtained in a likely illegal manner (e.g. black market) by the criminal.
I mean, think of gang shootings. Do know think those young men buy their guns legitimately? No, they steal them or they get them from someone who steals them.