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Originally Posted by QuikSand
This, to me makes intuitive sense. I understand that greater minds than mine, and presumably demonstrable experimentation, suggest it's simply wrong -- but thus are the boundaries of intuition, it seems.
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By that logic, if something today isn't measureable, but in 50 years it becomes measurable, doesn't that contradict the theory? Maybe I'm simplying it too much, but that theory, if introduced two hundred years ago, would mean that atoms don't exist. There was no way to measure them. Then atoms were discovered and deemed measurable. Then, by that theory, proton and neutrons didn't exist, there was no way to measure them. Rinse and repeat.
I can see, though, related to thought and free will, where this could gain traction. How do you measure/quantify a thought or a dream? Today, we have no concept of how to do this. But some brainiac in the future just might figure out a way to do that.