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Old 08-25-2004, 01:23 AM   #2
thesloppy
Pro Starter
 
Join Date: Feb 2003
Location: PDX
My probability is rusty at best, but I'd go with 51 * 52 = 2652.

On second thought, that's sure to be wrong, but I'm sure some of the gentlemen around here will be able to help you out.

Logically I would say you take one beginning card, and there are 51 possible hands involving that card and any other card. Throw your original card out, since it's already been accounted for in all possibilities, and move onto the next card, leaving you with 50 possible hands incolving your second card and any other possible card except for the first. Continuing this trend with every possible card would give you 51+50+49+48.....etc etc until you get to one possible hand remaining. Excel tells me that would be 1326 But I'm certainly not 100% sure on that answer either..

Last edited by thesloppy : 08-25-2004 at 01:36 AM.
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